Ground School Final Exam

  1. The temperature of the air delivered by the packs is determined by ?
  2. List 3 of the conditions that cause an air conditioning pack to trip?
  3. In order for the manual switch in the air conditioning control system to control the bypass and inlet door, a pack selector button must be pushed and that control switch must be in ...... position ?
  4. The smoke light in the equipment cooling panel indicates what ?
  5. On touchdown, the pressurization system should do what ?
  6. The automatice differential pressure limiter limits cabin differential pressure to 8.9 PSID in which modes ?
  7. What do the Outflow Valves do when the Rate Limit Test switch is first pressed during the preflight check ?
  8. When will the pack valve close automatically ?
  9. What requirements must be met for two or three autopilots to be engaged at the same time ?
  10. When will an autopilot warning light flash red ?
  11. What is indicated when the Approach Progress Display NAV light is amber (or as installed FMA white) ?
  12. What is the lowest permitted altitude with a single channel autopilot engaged?
  13. From where does Autopilot A receive pitch and roll information from ?
  14. During which Autopilot mode is Altitude Hold available in ?
  15. List the power sources available on the AC electrical system.
  16. Once the CSD has been disconnected, can it be reconnected ?
  17. After selecting an airplane generator on the AC meter panel, pushing the GEN TEST button results in what AC meter reading ?
  18. With the Standby Power switch in normal during an Essential AC Bus failure, what will be powered by the Main Airplane Battery ?
  19. What occurs when Standby Power is selected to Manual On ?
  20. With Essential AC Bus selector in Normal position, how will the Essential AC Bus be powered ?
  21. What occurs when the Main Battery switch is OFF with normal power established ?
  22. What is lost in flight, if No. 4 Bus Tie Breaker and No. 4 Generator Breaker trip and cannot be reclosed ?
  23. If operating with two generators inoperative, what load limitations have to be observed for the remaining generators ?
  24. How can load shuffling be recognized ?
  25. With all other indications normal, when is it necessary to disconnect a CSD ?
  26. Should the respective engine be shut down if it's CSD fails to disconnect ?
  27. What position should the Split System Breaker be in with both APU generators powering the AC buses ?
  28. What trips when a main feeder fault, to aircraft structure, between a main generator and its associated Generator Circuit Breaker occurs?
  29. How and which generators can by paralelled?
  30. When would the power source to the APU Battery Charger be interupted ?
  31. What 3 sources can power the Ground Service Bus ?
  32. How are the Indicator Lights on the F/E panel tested ?
  33. When would the No Smoking signs illuminate automatically ?
  34. How should the main panel background light be adjusted ?
  35. How are the passenger oxygen control units activated ?
  36. What is provided when selecting the Emergency position on the Oxygen diluter demand regulator ?
  37. Where is the oxygen Manual Reset handle located ?
  38. Where are the engine fire extinguishing bottle red thermal relief indicator discs located ?
  39. What is automatically accomplished when an Engine Fire Switch is pulled ?
  40. What is indicated by the Squib OK light on the engine fire detection control panel ?
  41. What is indicated by an APU Fire Detection System sensing a fire in loop A and a fault in loop B ?
  42. What indications result with the Nacelle Fire Detector switches set to Both and A & B Nacelle F/F Test switches selected to Fire Test ?
  43. True or False:  With an electrical short the Wheel Well Fire warning will be locked on ?
  44. Following an Aft Lower Cargo Fire, when will the red light on the overhead panel extinguish ?
  45. True or False: During the APU Fire Detection Test the light and horn on the Remote Control Panel will activated ?
  46. If Hydraulic Systems 2 & 3 fail, what flight contols will be powered by Hydraulic System 1 & 4 ?
  47. What is the function of the Central Control Actuator ?
  48. What is provided by the Turn Coordinator function of the Yaw Damper system ?
  49. What occurs when the red guarded Stab Trim switches on the control stand are moved to Cut Out ?
  50. What hydraulic systems must be pressurized to arm the Auto Spoiler system in case of loss of one or two hydraulic systems ?
  51. What factors vary the rate at which the stabilizer moves ?
  52. What is indicated by rotation of the black and white disc during Stall Warning Test ?
  53. Where is Trailing Edge Flap Asymmetry detected ?
  54. What does the Rudder Ratio light on during test mean ?
  55. What action is required if the Elevator Feel warning light illuminates in flight ?
  56. True or False:  Manual operation of the Stabilizer Trim will always override electrical trim ?
  57. What is indicated by a Stabilizer Brake Release light on ?
  58. What is the function of the Leading Edge Alternate Flap Arm switch ?
  59. True or False: Trailing Edge Flap Assymetry protection is available during alternate operation ?
  60. What is meant by the illumination of the Auto Spoiler light in flight ?
  61. What causes illumination of the Rudder Ration light ?
  62. What action should you take if the Elevator Control jams ?
  63. True or False: One of the inputs to the Take Off configuration warning system is the position of the Leading Edge Flaps.
  64. True or False: An intermittent Takeoff Warning Horn will sound as Thrust Lever No. 3 is advanced beyond the Take Warning horn range with: Stabilizer not in Green Band, Flaps not at 10 or 20, Speed Brake Lever not in Down Detent, Body Gear Steering not centred, Leading Edge Flaps not extended and Parking Brake set.
  65. The Fuel Jettison System provides a means for jettisoning fuel for weight reduction. Which fuel tanks supply the Jettison Manifold ?
  66. When will placing the Fuel Heat switch to the open position cause the associated Fuel Heat Valve to operate ?
  67. How does fuel transfer from the Reserve Tanks to the Outboard Main Tank ?
  68. What condition is the Engine Fuel Valve in when the Engine Fuel Valve light is dim ?
  69. What is indicated by the Scavenge Pump Low Pressure light illuminating stready ?
  70. What action is required when, in flight, any main tank quantity is at or below 2000 lbs ?
  71. The airplane has been fuelled to 120,000KGS (231,500LBS) and engine startup, taxi and takeoff conducted using normal fuel management and distribution.  On takeoff, both Override/Jettison Pumps fail.  What effects will this have ?
  72. What is the main purpose of the Hydraulic System No. 4 Electric AC Pump ?
  73. What electrical sources supply power to the Hydraulic System No. 4 AC Pump ?
  74. In the event of Engine Driven Pump failure, can the Air Driven Pump supply normal system demands ?
  75. Electrical power for the Hyd Sys 4 Elec pump is provided by the Ground Handling Bus, how is this powered ?
  76. How is Nose Gear and Body Gear Steering powered and does it have a backup ?
  77. During a pushback start, the No. 1 ADP should be running to provide what ?
  78. What is the minimum Hydraulic fluid content for a flight exceeding four hours ?
  79. When is Wing Anti-Ice ineffective ?
  80. When will placing the Nacelle Anti-Ice switches to ON open associated anti-ice valves ?
  81. When would the Power Lights on the Window Heat control panel illuminate with Window Heat operating ?
  82. What N1 setting should be used with NAI operating above 10000 Feet ?
  83. True or False:  The Landing Gear has an Alternate Extension System that utilizes electric motors to unlock the Gear Doors and Landing Gear, allowing gear weight and air loading to extend the Landing Gear to the locked position.
  84. What hydraulic system powers the Reserve Brake System ?
  85. Where are the Reserve Brake System lights and selector switch located ?
  86. What is the normal input for the Captain's ADI and HSI ?
  87. Where is the Mach number displayed on the Captain's instrument derived from ?
  88. What INS mode has to be operative to display Ground Speed and Miles to Go (NM DTG) on the HSI ?
  89. What flags would appear to cause the Central Instrument Warning System (CIWS) WARN light to flash ?
  90. Where is Engine Bleed Air directed prior to entering the Pneumatic Duct ?
  91. When would the High Stage lights on the Pneumatic System Control Panel illuminate ?
  92. The pneumatic Duct Pressure indicator indicates pressure at what location ?
  93. What is the recommended minimum Pneumatic Duct Pressure for ground engine start ?
  94. What is the maximum bleed air pressure regulated by the Bleed Air Valves ?
  95. If the recommended minimum start duct pressure cannot be maintained, starts may be attempted, with an OAT of 10 C or greater at Sea Level.  What is the minimum duct pressure after the Start Valve is open ?
  96. The engine has two idle speeds.  Ground (Low) and Flight (High) Idle.  What is the purpose of Flight Idle speed ?
  97. What is cutoff when the No. Engine Start Lever is in the Cutoff position ?
  98. What is indicated by the Maximum Pointer on the N2 Indicator ?
  99. What will occur when placing the Standby Ignition Selector to IGN 1 or 2 ?
  100. What source powers operation of the Variable Stator Vanes ?